Forensic Medicine & Toxicology MCQs (Prof Exam)


This blog post contains MCQs of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology collected from 3rd Year MBBS Prof. Exams of various medical colleges. We hope you people will find it useful for your prof. exam preparation.

Please find the Forensic Medicine & Toxicology MCQs (with answer key) below after the jump. 🙂

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology — its funny side

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology of 3rd Year MBBS is quite an interesting subject for all the bad reasons one can imagine. 😀 It’s a subject which helps you explore the criminal mindset and ways you can master it. It basically teaches you crime tactics with great emphasis on how not to get caught! 😀

And for those interested in Crime Scene Investigation (CSI) and serial killers, Forensic Medicine and Toxicology serves as a dose for satisfying their obsession. It makes you think like the ACP Pradyuman (from CID, Sony TV):

“Kuch tu gadbad chal rahi hai!” 😀

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology MCQ Papers


Forensic Medicine & Toxicology MCQs

These Forensic Medicine & Toxicology MCQs have been collected from prof. exams. They are high-yield and are frequently tested in exams. We hope you’ll find them helpful for your exam preparation.


** For answers, please click here: Answer Key


1. Most common pattern fingerprint is
a. Whorls
b. Loops
c. Composite
d. Arches

2. pH of seminal fluid is
a. 6
b. 7
c. 7.4
d. 8.2

3. Poroscopy is
a. Counting pores of sweat glands only
b. Counting pores of both sweat and sebaceous glands
c. Counting number of ridges
d. Counting number of ridges and sweat glands

4. Tattoo marks destroyed, their presence can be inferred from presence of pigment in
a. Deep dermis
b. Subcutaneous tissue
c. Lymph nodes Regional
d. Underlying Muscle

5. Bluish discolouration of neck of tooth due to
a. Cyanosis
b. Bismuth
c. Copper
d. Nicotine

6. Suspected air embolism, body cavity to be opened first is
a. Brain
b. Thorax
c. Abdomen
d. Pelvis

7. “Under taker’s fracture” due to falling of head (Backward) occurs at
a. L5-S1
b. T12-L1
c. C6-C7
d. C1-C2

8. Most fixed part of intestine is
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Colon
d. Ileum

9. After death blood usually remains fluid except in
a. Pneumonia
b. Septicemia
c. CO poisoning
d. Hypofibrinogenemia

10. “Nutmeg liver” refers to
a. Amoebic hepatitis
b. Pyogenic abscess
c. Chronic venous congestion
d. Portal cirrhosis

11. Child brain attains mature size and weight at about
a. 3 yrs
b. 5 yrs
c. 7 yrs
d. 9 yrs

12. Radiological signs of fetal death includes all except ?
a. Overlapping of skull bones (Spalding’s sign)
b. Hyperextension of spine
c. Collapse of spinal column
d. Gas in aorta

13. For transplantation cornea can be removed from dead upto
a. 6 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 18 hrs
d. 24 hrs

14. Exhumation done under order by
a. Police officer
b. Superintendent police
c. First class magistrate

15. Diagnosis of brain death dependent upon all except
a. Dilated/fixed pupil
b. No spontaneous breathing
c. Flat EEG
d. Cessation of cardiac contraction.

16. After stoppage of circulation muscles can live up to
a. 10 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 3 hours
d. 6 hours

17. Anoxic anoxia produced by all except
a. Drowning
b. Fire accidents
c. Cyanide poisoning
d. Strangulation

18. Tardieu spots in hanging are common at all the following sites except
a. Scalp
b. Eyebrow
c. Chest wall
d. Face

19. Tardieu’s spot
a. Septicemia
b. Endocarditis
c. Meningococcemia
d. All of the above

20. Earliest sign of death is
a. loss of skin elasticity
b. Corneal clouding
c. Cooling of body
d. Postmortem lividity

21. “Tache Noire” refers to
a. Postmortem staining
b. Flaccidity of eyeball
c. Wrinkled dusty sclera
d. Maggot growth

22. Rectal temperature does not appreciably fall till what time after death
a. 15-30 mts
b. 30-60 mts
c. 60-90 mts
d. none of the above

23. Postmortem caloricity seen in poisoning from
a. Arsenic
b. Strychnine
c. Cyanide
d. Organophosphorus

24. Postmortem lividity well developed with in
a. 2 hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 8 hrs

25. Fixation of postmortem staining occurs in
a. 2 hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 6 hrs
d. 8 hrs

26. Rigor mortis starts when muscle ATP is reduced below
a. 50%
b. 5%
c. 15%
d. 5%

27. Rigor mortis first evident in
a. Intestine
b. Myocardium
c. Interstitial muscle
d. Eyelids

28. Cutis anserina of rigor mortis due to stiffness of
a. Erector pilorum
b. Biceps
c. Cremaster
d. Diaphragm

29. Rigor mortis does not occur in fetus less than
a. 9 mth
b. 7 mth
c. 6 mth
d. 8 mth

30. Commonest cause of impotence in male is
a. Adrenal dysfunction
b. Testicular failure
c. Mal developed penis
d. Psychogenic

31. Cadaveric spasm commonly seen in
a. Legs
b. Hands
c. Neck muscles
d. Involuntary muscles

32. Heat stiffening occurs when body exposed to temperature
a. 450C
b. 550C
c. 650C
d. 750C

33. Chief agent for bacterial putrefaction is
a. E.coli
b. B. fragilis
c. C.welchii
d. Staph aureus

34. Postmortem hemolysis due to bacterial enzyme
a. Lecithinase
b. Phospholipase
c. Streptokinase
d. Hyaluronidase

35. First external sign of putrefaction of body lying in air is around
a. Umbilicus
b. Rt iliac fossa
c. Lt iliac fossa
d. Chest wall

36. Greenish color earliest sign of putrefaction due to
a. Hb
b. Meta Hb
c. SulphmetHb
d. CarboxyHb

37. Combustible gas of autolysis is
a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Hydrogen sulphide
c. Methane
d. Carbon dioxide

38. Postmortem luminescence due to
a. Photobacterium fischeri
b. Armillaria mellea

39. First internal organ to putrefy is
a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Larynx / trachea
d. Kidney

40. Last organ to putrefy
a. Uterus / prostate
b. Testes
c. Ovary
d. Adrenals

41. Putrefaction occurs more rapidly in
a. Water
b. Air
c. Soil
d. Cold-salt water

42. Adipocere starts early in all of following except
a. Face
b. Breast
c. Buttock
d. Chest wall

43. Dehydration / Shriveling of cadaver is called
a. Putrefaction
b. Mummification
c. Saponification

44. Formaldehyde injected for embalming is
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

45. Odour of mummified body is
a. Pungent
b. Putrid
c. Offensive
d. Odorless

46. For embalming chemicals are injected into
a. Femoral artery
b. Abdominal cavity
c. Chest cavity

47. Maggots appear in natural orifices of dead in summer in about
a. 2 – 4 hrs
b. 6 – 8 hrs
c. 8 – 12 hrs
d. 12 – 24 hrs

48. After death all of following show rise in CSF except
a. Lactic acid
b. Amino acid
c. Urea
d. Uric acid

49. After death blood level of following decrease
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. None

50. Brush burn refers to
a. Electric burn
b. Lightening burn
c. Sliding abrasion
d. Pressure abrasion

51. Wound cause by sickle is
a. Stab wound
b. Incised wound
c. Both

52. Beveling cut refers to
a. Flap wound
b. Overhang margins
c. One margin under mined
d. Irregular margins

53. Cut-throat wound cause death by
a. Air embolism
b. Haemorrhage
c. Tracheobronchial aspiration
d. All of above.

54. Blunt trauma more likely to produce incised like wounds
a. Hand
b. Neck
c. Chest
d. Scalp

55. Fabricated wounds are mostly
a. Abrasions
b. Incised wounds
c. Contusions
d. Lacerations

56. Diastatic fracture refers to fracture through
a. Outer table
b. Inner table
c. Sutural line
d. None

57. In Contrecoup impact lesion is present
a. At site of impact
b. At a site opposite to impact
c. At a site tangential to impact

58. Extradural haemorrhage commonly occurs from rupture of
a. Superior sagittal sinus
b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Dural sinus
d. None of above.

59. Common cause of death in Extradural haemmorhage is
a. Haemorrhagic shock
b. Respiratory failure
c. Cardiac failure
d. Neurogenic shock

60. Rupture of berry aneurysm commonly produces
a. Subarachnoid bleed
b. Intracerebral sued
c. Subdural bleed

61. Most common cause of aneurysm formation
a. Trauma
b. Septic emboli
c. Congenital
d. Syphilitic endarteritis

62. Whiplash is which form of injury
a. Hyper flexion
b. Hyperextension
c. Lateral flexion
d. Atlanto-axial dislocation

63. Blunt abdominal trauma commonest site of GI ruptures is
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunum
d. Transverse colon

64. In drowning, the epidermis of the hands and feet is separated in the form of gloves and stocking after:
a. 2 minutes
b. 2 hours
c. 2 weeks
d. 2 months

65. Chadwick’s sign is
a. Softening of cervix
b. Increased vaginal mucous secretion
c. Blue colouration of vagina

66. Amount of air necessary to produce fatal air embolism is
a. 20 ml
b. 50 ml
c. 100 ml
d. 250 ml

67. Malignant hyperthermia is a danger with
a. Atropine
b. Succinylcholine
c. Pancuronium

68. Hypothermia is said to exist when Rectal / oral temp less than
a. 35° C
b. 30° C
c. 25° C
d. 20° C

69. Frostbite occurs when continuous exposure to temp. range of
a. – 10° C and below
b. – 2.5° C and below
c. 2 – 4° C
d. 5 – 10° C

70. Frostbite is very common in
a. Lips
b. Nose
c. Cheeks
d. Hair

71. Burn type relatively painless
a. 1st degree
b. 2nd degree
c. 3rd degree

72. Minimum temp to produce burn is
a. 40° C
b. 44° C
c. 50° C
d. 60° C

73. Haemoglobinuria occurs when burnt skin surface exceeds
a. 20 %
b. 30 %
c. 50 %
d. 70 %

74. Scalding is caused when liquid in contact has temperature above
a. 44° C
b. 50° C
c. 60° C
d. 80° C

75. Satyriasis is
a. Excessive inclination for sex
b. Dislike for sex
c. Sexual perversion

76. The most reliable method for personal identification is:
a. Photography
b. Handwriting
c. Anthropometry
d. Dactylography

77. The age of full criminal responsibility is:
a. 7 years
b. 18 years
c. 21 years
d. 30 years

78. A person died from a stab wound in the aorta, in winter. His rectal temperature was 31 °C. The post-mortem interval is:
a. 2 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours

79. The presence of tache noire is suggestive that the time since death is:
a. One hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 8 hours

80. The last organ to putrefy in the young girls is:
a. Uterus
b. Bladder
c. Ovary
d. Heart

81. Exhumation is:
a. Artificial preservation of a dead body
b. Burning of a dead body
c. Getting the dead body from the grave
d. Aseptic autolysis of a dead body

82. flattening remains until:
a. Hypostasis is complete
b. Rigor mortis is complete
c. Putrefaction begins
d. Cadaveric spasm occurs

83. A person died in a hospital 2 weeks after burning of his abdominal and chest walls and upper-extermities, the most probable cause of death is:
a. Traumatic asphyxia
b. Pulmonary fat embolism
c. Perforation of an acute duodenal ulcer (curling’s ulcer)
d. Suprarenal haemorrhage

84. Polar fracture is a:
a. Comminuted fracture
b. Fissure fracture
c. Depressed fracture
d. Cut fracture

85. The most resistant body tissue to electrical injury is:
a. Dry skin
b. Muscles
c. Bones
d. Blood and body fluid

86. The commonest cause of death in extradural hemorrhage is:
a. Hemorrhagic shock
b. Respiratory failure
c. Cardiac failure
d. Neurogenic shock

87. A 32 year-old farmer received abdominal trauma, after 2 hours the pulse reached 136/min, blood pressure 70/40. The cause is:
a. Shock
b. Sympathetic shock
c. Internal haemorrhage
. Air embolism

88. The most important sign for identification of contact firearm inlet is:
a. Loss of substance
b. Presence of two wounds
c. Muzzle imprint around the wound margin
d. Abraded inlet

89. A person with a head injury can talk normally and tell about the circumstantial evidence in case of:
a. Lucid interval
b. Concussion
c. Retrograde amnesia
d. Automatism

90. Tear in the intima of the carotid artery with bleeding into its wall is seen in cases of:
a. Smothering
b. Antemortem hanging
c. Postmortem hanging
d. Traumatic asphyxia

91. One of the following is a sure external sign of drowning that can be found in postmortem examination:
a. Goose skin
b. Washer woman’s hands
c. Peeling of the skin
d. Fine froth at the mouth and nostrils

92. One of the following is not the immediate cause of death in criminal abortion:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Septic instrumentation
c. Reflex vagal inhibition of the heart
d. Air embolism

93. Choose the wrong statement regarding child abuse:
a. Injuries arc deliberate
b. Inconsistent history for injuries
c. Step-parents are rarely involved
d. Slight tendency towards male child

94. Adipocere of the whole body occurs in about:
a. One month
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

95. Dry burn is caused by:
a. Hot liquid or steam
b. Flame or hot metals
c. Deep x-ray or UV-rays
d. Strong acids or alkalies

96. One of the following is not a manifestation of shaken baby syndrome:
a. Burns
b. Retinal haemorrhage
c. Rib fracture
d. Subdural haematoma

97. One of the followings produce toxic hypothermia:
a. Salicylates
b. Anticholinergics
c. Antidepressants
d. Opioids

98. The best method to avoid aspiration of fluids during gastric lavage in a comatose patient is by :
a. Putting the head of the patient at a lower level than his feet
b. Putting the patient in the left lateral position
c. Introduction of a cuffed endotracheal tube before lavage
d. Continuous suction of the fluid from the trachea

99. Surgical interference may be needed especially in children after poisoning by:
a. Hydrocyanic acid
b. Caustic potash
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Carbolic acid

100. One of the following solvents is not metabolized in the body to cyanide:
a. Isopropanol
b. Nitroprusside
c. Acetonitrile
d. Acrylonitrile

101. In poisoning with hydrocyanic acid, nitrates are given in order to:
a. Reduce cyanide
b. Induce vasodilatation
c. Produce methaemoglobin
d. Oxidise cyanide

102. After skin contamination, the patient passed into coma with miosis and finally acute nephritis, the poison is:
a. Oxalic acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Hydrocyanic acid
d. Carbolic acid

103. The dose of Na thiosulphate for treatment of cyanide poisoning in children is:
a. 112.5 mg/kg IV over 10-20 min.
b. 412.5 mg/kg IV over 10-20 min
c. 412.5 mg/kg IV over 2 min
d. 412.5 mg/kg IV over 5 min

104. An old traffic policeman in a busy street of Cairo is liable to suffer from:
a. Spastic gait
b. Tremors
c. Masked face
d. Wrist and ankle drop

105. Blue line in the gingival margin in case of lead poisoning is due to deposition of:
a. Lead chromate
b. Lead sulphide
c. Lead subacetate
d. Lead iodide

106. In iron poisoning, bloody vomiting and diarrhea, massive fluid loss in GIT, renal failure and death occur in:
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

107. The specific antidote in case of iron poisoning is:
a. DMSA.
b. Deferoxamine
c. EDTA.
d. Penicillamine

108. Acute toxicity of organophosphates causes:
a. Urine retention
b. Oliguria
c. Urine incontinence
d. Anuria

109. Prolonged prothrombin time occurs in cases of poisoning with:
a. Parathion
b. Warfarin
c. Paraquat
d. Zinc sulphide

110. The second stage of acute acetaminophen toxicity is characterized by:
a. Abnormalities of liver function tests
b. Bleeding tendencies due to coagulation defect
c. Nausea and malaise
d. Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness

111. Which of the following is specific antidote for acute acetaminophen toxicity:
a. BAL
b. Mucomyst

112. Benzodiazepines act on the CNS through the following mechanism:
a. Increasing catecholamines
b. Increasing serotonin
c. Increasing the activity of GABA
d. Decreasing the activity of GABA

113. In case of foodborne botulism, the toxin is:
a. Formed in the duodenum
b. Formed in the colon
c. Formed in the intestine
d. Formed in the canned food before consumption

114. A 4 year old boy accidentally ingested a clear fluid, vomited twice then started to cough with tachypnea, 24 hours later he developed fever of 39 °C due to bronchopneumonia. The possible diagnosis is:
a. Phenol toxicity
b. Kerosene toxicity
c. Ethanol toxicity
d. Methanol toxicity

115. MAcEwen’s sign is a manifestation of massive intake of:
a. Atropine
b. Opium
c. Methanol
d. Ethanol

116. One of the following manifestations is an indication of severe ethanol intoxication:
a. Euphoria and sense of well-being
b. Marked muscular incoordination
c. Increased confidence
d. Aggressive behaviour

117. In case of acute CO poisoning, coma and death with lively red colour occur at a carboxy haemoglobin level of:
a. 10-20%
b. 20-30%
c. 30-40%
d. 50- 60 %

118. Pathological jealousy is diagnostic of:
a. Cocaine intoxication
b. Cannabis intoxication
c. Alcoholic intoxication
d. Tobacco intoxication



  1. B
  2. C
  3. A
  4. C
  5. D
  6. B
  7. C
  8. A
  9. A
  10. C
  11. C
  12. B
  13. A
  14. C
  15. D
  16. B
  17. C
  18. C
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. B
  23. B
  24. B
  25. C
  26. C
  27. D
  28. A
  29. B
  30. D
  31. B
  32. C
  33. C
  34. A
  35. B
  36. C
  37. B
  38. A
  39. C
  40. A
  41. C
  42. D
  43. B
  44. D
  45. D
  46. A
  47. D
  48. C
  49. A
  50. C
  51. C
  52. C
  53. D
  54. D
  55. B
  56. C
  57. B
  58. B
  59. B
  60. A
  61. D
  62. B
  63. D
  64. D
  65. C
  66. C
  67. B
  68. A
  69. B
  70. B
  71. C
  72. B
  73. B
  74. C
  75. A
  76. D
  77. B
  78. C
  79. C
  80. A
  81. C
  82. C
  83. C
  84. B
  85. C
  86. B
  87. C
  88. C
  89. A
  90. B
  91. D
  92. B
  93. D
  94. C
  95. B
  96. A
  97. D
  98. C
  99. B
  100. A
  101. C
  102. D
  103. B
  104. D
  105. B
  106. A
  107. B
  108. C
  109. B
  110. A
  111. B
  112. C
  113. D
  114. B
  115. D
  116. B
  117. D
  118. C





Please enter your comment!
Please enter your name here